does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Digital Signal Processing using computers.

does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Postby kiki » Sun Dec 26, 2004 7:57 am

Hi all,

I read through several books but did not get clarification on whether
WGN(white Gaussian noise process) imply zero mean or not...

Another confusion I have is that the definition of WGN is it has flat power
spectrum density, let's say S(f)=1, then Rx(t)=delta(t) is its
autocorrelation function, I don't see how people say the power of this noise
process is E((x(t))^2)=sigma_x, something like that... the power should be
infinite, right?

Any clarifications? Thanks a lot!
kiki
 

Re: does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Postby ted » Sun Dec 26, 2004 7:57 am

"kiki" <lunaliu3@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:cqlbr7$a4m$1@news.Stanford.EDU...
Hi all,

I read through several books but did not get clarification on whether
WGN(white Gaussian noise process) imply zero mean or not...

Zero mean.


Another confusion I have is that the definition of WGN is it has flat
power
spectrum density, let's say S(f)=1, then Rx(t)=delta(t) is its
autocorrelation function, I don't see how people say the power of this
noise
process is E((x(t))^2)=sigma_x, something like that... the power should be
infinite, right?

Power cannot be infinite, unless you have identical waveforms for
autocorrelation peak.


Any clarifications? Thanks a lot!


ted
 

Re: does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Postby Randy Yates » Sun Dec 26, 2004 7:19 pm

"kiki" <lunaliu3@yahoo.com> writes:

Hi all,

I read through several books but did not get clarification on whether
WGN(white Gaussian noise process) imply zero mean or not...

Hi Kiki,

Now you've got me wondering. On one hand, I've heard the term "zero-mean
additive white Gaussian noise" many times, but on the other hand, "white"
implies a flat PSD, which in term implies that there is some power at DC.
So I can't answer your question.

Another confusion I have is that the definition of WGN is it has flat power
spectrum density, let's say S(f)=1, then Rx(t)=delta(t) is its
autocorrelation function, I don't see how people say the power of this noise
process is E((x(t))^2)=sigma_x,

Rxx(t) is defined to be

Rxx(tau)= E[x(t)*x(t-tau)]

for a real random process x(t). Then, by definition,

E[x^2(t)] = E[x(t) * x(t-0)]
= Rxx(0)
= undefined (infinity)

when Rxx(t) = delta(t). Thus you're contradicting yourself somewhat.

A truly white-noise process does have infinite power (hence the Dirac
delta function in the autocorrelation), but most transistors I know
of burn out after a few gigawatts, so we usually speak of a band-limited
white noise process, i.e., a process which has a PSD Sxx(w) = c, |w| < a,
and in which case the power is finite and Rxx(0) = a*c/pi.
--
% Randy Yates % "She's sweet on Wagner-I think she'd die for Beethoven.
%% Fuquay-Varina, NC % She love the way Puccini lays down a tune, and
%%% 919-577-9882 % Verdi's always creepin' from her room."
%%%% <yates@ieee.org> % "Rockaria", *A New World Record*, ELO
http://home.earthlink.net/~yatescr
Randy Yates
 

Re: does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Postby Prasanna » Sun Dec 26, 2004 7:45 pm

I read through several books but did not get clarification on whether

WGN(white Gaussian noise process) imply zero mean or not...

WGN does not imply zero mean. It only says that the noise is gaussian
distributed and the rv from any two different time instances of the
process are always uncorrelated. But noise is always assumed to be zero
mean because it is usually additive and hence you can subtract the mean
to make it zero mean.

Another confusion I have is that the definition of WGN is it has flat
power
spectrum density, let's say S(f)=1, then Rx(t)=delta(t) is its
autocorrelation function, I don't see how people say the power of
this noise
process is E((x(t))^2)=sigma_x, something like that... the power
should be
infinite, right?

Any clarifications? Thanks a lot!

Talking about the power of a random process is not precise at all.
sigma^2 is the variance of the gaussian pdf, and the power spectral
density has an amplitude that is sigma^2/2 flat. The power is actually
the area under power spectral density and is infinite, literally. Hope
it helps.

Prasanna.
Prasanna
 

Re: does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Postby Tim Wescott » Sun Dec 26, 2004 10:06 pm

kiki wrote:

Hi all,

I read through several books but did not get clarification on whether
WGN(white Gaussian noise process) imply zero mean or not...

OK. Think.

Hmm. The definition of a white noise process is that the PSD is 1
everywhere. OK, I understand that.

If I know the PSD of a function I can find the expected power between
any two frequencies by just integrating the PSD over that interval. OK,
I've read my books, I understand that.

Now, DC means the frequency interval between 0 and 0 (technically
between 0- and 0+). Integrating 1 between 0 and 0 I get -- ZERO! WOW!
Another confusion I have is that the definition of WGN is it has flat power
spectrum density, let's say S(f)=1, then Rx(t)=delta(t) is its
autocorrelation function, I don't see how people say the power of this noise
process is E((x(t))^2)=sigma_x, something like that... the power should be
infinite, right?

For a truly white PSD the power is infinite (see, I'm not raking you
over the coals for this -- this is actually a bit of a brain twister and
therefore not a blindingly obvious question).

This is actually the mathematical difficulty that led Plank to his
discovery of black-body radiation -- before Plank you had to just
describe thermal noise in a resistor or whatnot as white noise, and
shrug your shoulders when the question of infinite power came up.

So for all practical purposes you should remember that white noise of
any sort is a mathematical fiction, and only it to predict the responses
of physical systems who's bandwidths are much lower than the bandwidth
limitation of the noise you have at hand.
Any clarifications? Thanks a lot!





--

Tim Wescott
Wescott Design Services
http://www.wescottdesign.com
Tim Wescott
 

Re: does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Postby Jerry Avins » Sun Dec 26, 2004 11:21 pm

Tim Wescott wrote:

...

So for all practical purposes you should remember that white noise of
any sort is a mathematical fiction, and only it to predict the responses
of physical systems who's bandwidths are much lower than the bandwidth
limitation of the noise you have at hand.

Man, I wish I had had you for a teacher, back when it mattered!

Jerry
--
Engineering is the art of making what you want from things you can get.
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
Jerry Avins
 

Re: does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Postby Randy Yates » Sun Dec 26, 2004 11:37 pm

Tim Wescott <tim@wescottnospamdesign.com> writes:

kiki wrote:

Hi all,
I read through several books but did not get clarification on
whether WGN(white Gaussian noise process) imply zero mean or not...

OK. Think.

Hmm. The definition of a white noise process is that the PSD is 1
everywhere. OK, I understand that.

If I know the PSD of a function I can find the expected power between
any two frequencies by just integrating the PSD over that interval.
OK, I've read my books, I understand that.

Now, DC means the frequency interval between 0 and 0 (technically
between 0- and 0+). Integrating 1 between 0 and 0 I get -- ZERO! WOW!

Hey Tim,

You get the same result when integrating between 1- and 1+, or
253,392- and 253,392+, etc., and we know have power at there.

What have you answered, then?
--
% Randy Yates % "With time with what you've learned,
%% Fuquay-Varina, NC % they'll kiss the ground you walk
%%% 919-577-9882 % upon."
%%%% <yates@ieee.org> % '21st Century Man', *Time*, ELO
http://home.earthlink.net/~yatescr
Randy Yates
 

Re: does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Postby Tim Wescott » Mon Dec 27, 2004 12:20 am

Randy Yates wrote:

Tim Wescott <tim@wescottnospamdesign.com> writes:


kiki wrote:


Hi all,
I read through several books but did not get clarification on
whether WGN(white Gaussian noise process) imply zero mean or not...

OK. Think.

Hmm. The definition of a white noise process is that the PSD is 1
everywhere. OK, I understand that.

If I know the PSD of a function I can find the expected power between
any two frequencies by just integrating the PSD over that interval.
OK, I've read my books, I understand that.

Now, DC means the frequency interval between 0 and 0 (technically
between 0- and 0+). Integrating 1 between 0 and 0 I get -- ZERO! WOW!


Hey Tim,

You get the same result when integrating between 1- and 1+, or
253,392- and 253,392+, etc., and we know have power at there.

What have you answered, then?

Well, _I've_ answered that there's no DC content (which is another way
of saying zero mean), when you take DC to it's mathematical limit (note
that white noise will appear to have DC content if you only observe it
for a finite amount of time, such as the time from the big bang to right
now). _You've_ extended this to show that you can pick any one,
zero-bandwidth, filter and find no energy there.

Hopefully I've also pointed out to Kiki that he has all this information
at his fingertips if he'd just collate, think, and use a pencil and
paper every once in a while.

--

Tim Wescott
Wescott Design Services
http://www.wescottdesign.com
Tim Wescott
 

Re: does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Postby Randy Yates » Mon Dec 27, 2004 4:50 am

Tim Wescott <tim@wescottnospamdesign.com> writes:

Randy Yates wrote:

Tim Wescott <tim@wescottnospamdesign.com> writes:

kiki wrote:


Hi all,
I read through several books but did not get clarification on
whether WGN(white Gaussian noise process) imply zero mean or not...

OK. Think.

Hmm. The definition of a white noise process is that the PSD is 1
everywhere. OK, I understand that.

If I know the PSD of a function I can find the expected power between
any two frequencies by just integrating the PSD over that interval.
OK, I've read my books, I understand that.

Now, DC means the frequency interval between 0 and 0 (technically
between 0- and 0+). Integrating 1 between 0 and 0 I get -- ZERO! WOW!
Hey Tim,
You get the same result when integrating between 1- and 1+, or
253,392- and 253,392+, etc., and we know have power at there. What
have you answered, then?

Well, _I've_ answered that there's no DC content (which is another way
of saying zero mean), when you take DC to it's mathematical limit
(note that white noise will appear to have DC content if you only
observe it for a finite amount of time, such as the time from the big
bang to right now). _You've_ extended this to show that you can pick
any one, zero-bandwidth, filter and find no energy there.

No, you've shown that there is no power there. There is indeed energy
there since, for white noise, Sxx(w) at w = w0 is strictly greater
than zero for any value of w0 (including 0), and the units of power
spectral density are [joules] ([watts/Hz] == [joules]). One obtains
power upon integration of the Sxx(w) (no matter how small of an
integration interval is chosen) since \int_{w_0-}^{w_0+} Sxx(w) dw has
units of [joules] * [1/seconds], i.e., power.

Hopefully I've also pointed out to Kiki that he has all this
information at his fingertips if he'd just collate, think, and use a
pencil and paper every once in a while.

If you confuse me and I've had two classes in it, I can't imagine
what's going on in kiki's mind. It is very possible that my mind
is screwed on wrong - if you think so, show me where my thinking
has gone astray.
--
% Randy Yates % "With time with what you've learned,
%% Fuquay-Varina, NC % they'll kiss the ground you walk
%%% 919-577-9882 % upon."
%%%% <yates@ieee.org> % '21st Century Man', *Time*, ELO
http://home.earthlink.net/~yatescr
Randy Yates
 

Re: does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Postby Tim Wescott » Mon Dec 27, 2004 5:04 am

Randy Yates wrote:

Tim Wescott <tim@wescottnospamdesign.com> writes:


Randy Yates wrote:


Tim Wescott <tim@wescottnospamdesign.com> writes:


kiki wrote:



Hi all,
I read through several books but did not get clarification on
whether WGN(white Gaussian noise process) imply zero mean or not...

OK. Think.

Hmm. The definition of a white noise process is that the PSD is 1
everywhere. OK, I understand that.

If I know the PSD of a function I can find the expected power between
any two frequencies by just integrating the PSD over that interval.
OK, I've read my books, I understand that.

Now, DC means the frequency interval between 0 and 0 (technically
between 0- and 0+). Integrating 1 between 0 and 0 I get -- ZERO! WOW!

Hey Tim,
You get the same result when integrating between 1- and 1+, or
253,392- and 253,392+, etc., and we know have power at there. What
have you answered, then?

Well, _I've_ answered that there's no DC content (which is another way
of saying zero mean), when you take DC to it's mathematical limit
(note that white noise will appear to have DC content if you only
observe it for a finite amount of time, such as the time from the big
bang to right now). _You've_ extended this to show that you can pick
any one, zero-bandwidth, filter and find no energy there.


No, you've shown that there is no power there. There is indeed energy
there since, for white noise, Sxx(w) at w = w0 is strictly greater
than zero for any value of w0 (including 0), and the units of power
spectral density are [joules] ([watts/Hz] == [joules]). One obtains
power upon integration of the Sxx(w) (no matter how small of an
integration interval is chosen) since \int_{w_0-}^{w_0+} Sxx(w) dw has
units of [joules] * [1/seconds], i.e., power.

Oy -- good point. Geeze these limits-to-infinity things get tricky.


There must be energy there because if you integrate a white noise
process the variance of the result goes up with the integration time.
But if you take the average of the white noise process (average =
integral / integration time) then the variance goes _down_ with the
integration time, eventually going to zero as the integration time goes
to infinity.

So; zero mean, infinite energy.
Hopefully I've also pointed out to Kiki that he has all this
information at his fingertips if he'd just collate, think, and use a
pencil and paper every once in a while.


If you confuse me and I've had two classes in it, I can't imagine
what's going on in kiki's mind. It is very possible that my mind
is screwed on wrong - if you think so, show me where my thinking
has gone astray.

I was confused about this stuff, too, and asking questions didn't clear
it up. What _did_ clear it up (for the most part; see your comment
above) was thinking about it. I had the advantage that I take long bike
rides, and for some reason it really worked for me to ponder these
questions while riding. This is why I'm trying to get the guy pulled
away from Matlab simulations.

--

Tim Wescott
Wescott Design Services
http://www.wescottdesign.com
Tim Wescott
 

Re: does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Postby David Kastrup » Mon Dec 27, 2004 6:25 am

"kiki" <lunaliu3@yahoo.com> writes:

I read through several books but did not get clarification on
whether WGN(white Gaussian noise process) imply zero mean or not...

For an infinity of samples, yes. But if you have just n samples, the
mean you'll get will be 0 only in the mean, but have a variance of V/n
where V is the variance of a single sample.

Another confusion I have is that the definition of WGN is it has
flat power spectrum density, let's say S(f)=1, then Rx(t)=delta(t)
is its autocorrelation function, I don't see how people say the
power of this noise process is E((x(t))^2)=sigma_x, something like
that... the power should be infinite, right?

That's a problem of defining your scale factors in a manner that
yields workable results. Fourier transforms for random processes are
somewhat special here.

--
David Kastrup, Kriemhildstr. 15, 44793 Bochum
David Kastrup
 

Re: does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Postby Randy Yates » Mon Dec 27, 2004 5:34 pm

Tim Wescott <tim@wescottnospamdesign.com> writes:

Randy Yates wrote:

Tim Wescott <tim@wescottnospamdesign.com> writes:


Randy Yates wrote:


Tim Wescott <tim@wescottnospamdesign.com> writes:


kiki wrote:



Hi all,
I read through several books but did not get clarification on
whether WGN(white Gaussian noise process) imply zero mean or not...

OK. Think.

Hmm. The definition of a white noise process is that the PSD is 1
everywhere. OK, I understand that.

If I know the PSD of a function I can find the expected power between
any two frequencies by just integrating the PSD over that interval.
OK, I've read my books, I understand that.

Now, DC means the frequency interval between 0 and 0 (technically
between 0- and 0+). Integrating 1 between 0 and 0 I get -- ZERO! WOW!

Hey Tim,
You get the same result when integrating between 1- and 1+, or
253,392- and 253,392+, etc., and we know have power at there. What
have you answered, then?

Well, _I've_ answered that there's no DC content (which is another way
of saying zero mean), when you take DC to it's mathematical limit
(note that white noise will appear to have DC content if you only
observe it for a finite amount of time, such as the time from the big
bang to right now). _You've_ extended this to show that you can pick
any one, zero-bandwidth, filter and find no energy there.
No, you've shown that there is no power there. There is indeed energy

there since, for white noise, Sxx(w) at w = w0 is strictly greater
than zero for any value of w0 (including 0), and the units of power
spectral density are [joules] ([watts/Hz] == [joules]). One obtains
power upon integration of the Sxx(w) (no matter how small of an
integration interval is chosen) since \int_{w_0-}^{w_0+} Sxx(w) dw has
units of [joules] * [1/seconds], i.e., power.


Oy -- good point. Geeze these limits-to-infinity things get tricky.

If I had a dime for every time I posted an erroroneous statement
in this newsgroup...

There must be energy there because if you integrate a white noise
process the variance of the result goes up with the integration
time. But if you take the average of the white noise process (average
= integral / integration time) then the variance goes _down_ with the
integration time, eventually going to zero as the integration time
goes to infinity.

Yes, agreed.

So; zero mean, infinite energy.

No, I don't agree! See the post I'm about to make in response to
my first response to kiki.

I was confused about this stuff, too, and asking questions didn't
clear it up. What _did_ clear it up (for the most part; see your
comment above) was thinking about it. I had the advantage that I take
long bike rides, and for some reason it really worked for me to ponder
these questions while riding.

Yup, I'm a fello ponderer too. So much so that many people think I'm
an idiot ("what difference does the wherefore and the why make? just
DO IT!").

This is why I'm trying to get the guy pulled away from Matlab
simulations.

YES! An excellent goal. Personally I have found Matlab to be useful
in learning only after considerable effort has already been spent
with pencil and paper (and bicycle, if that's your thing), and then
only sometimes.

It's off-topic, but it is this exact sort of thing, this sort of
"the deeper brain cells aren't exercised with a computer" thing,
that makes me boil every time I hear about what a good thing
computers are in school and how smart kids are these days because
they know how to use a computer. Bah!
--
Randy Yates
Sony Ericsson Mobile Communications
Research Triangle Park, NC, USA
randy.yates@sonyericsson.com, 919-472-1124
Randy Yates
 

Re: does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Postby Randy Yates » Mon Dec 27, 2004 5:46 pm

Randy Yates <yates@ieee.org> writes:

"kiki" <lunaliu3@yahoo.com> writes:

Hi all,

I read through several books but did not get clarification on whether
WGN(white Gaussian noise process) imply zero mean or not...

Hi Kiki,

Now you've got me wondering. On one hand, I've heard the term "zero-mean
additive white Gaussian noise" many times, but on the other hand, "white"
implies a flat PSD, which in term implies that there is some power at DC.
So I can't answer your question.

Kiki I hope you're reading this new post,

I can now partially answer your question. In order to do this, first
realize that when someone speaks of a zero-mean, white Gaussian noise
process, they're talking about a random process with an underlying
distribution, i.e., for each point in time t, the random process x(t)
has a specific probability density function f(t, s). IT IS THIS
UNDERLYING PDF THAT IS ZERO-MEAN.

However, that still doesn't completely resolve the issue (at least in
my mind it doesn't). A random process is "ergodic" if its time-wise
statistics are the same as its ensemble-wise statistics. So we have a
dilemma when postulating a zero-mean, white, ergodic random noise
process because ensemble-wise the mean is zero while time-wise the
mean is non-zero (since there's non-zero energy at DC). I still don't
know how to resolve THIS problem!

--Randy


Another confusion I have is that the definition of WGN is it has flat power
spectrum density, let's say S(f)=1, then Rx(t)=delta(t) is its
autocorrelation function, I don't see how people say the power of this noise
process is E((x(t))^2)=sigma_x,

Rxx(t) is defined to be

Rxx(tau)= E[x(t)*x(t-tau)]

for a real random process x(t). Then, by definition,

E[x^2(t)] = E[x(t) * x(t-0)]
= Rxx(0)
= undefined (infinity)

when Rxx(t) = delta(t). Thus you're contradicting yourself somewhat.

A truly white-noise process does have infinite power (hence the Dirac
delta function in the autocorrelation), but most transistors I know
of burn out after a few gigawatts, so we usually speak of a band-limited
white noise process, i.e., a process which has a PSD Sxx(w) = c, |w| < a,
and in which case the power is finite and Rxx(0) = a*c/pi.
--
% Randy Yates % "She's sweet on Wagner-I think she'd die for Beethoven.
%% Fuquay-Varina, NC % She love the way Puccini lays down a tune, and
%%% 919-577-9882 % Verdi's always creepin' from her room."
%%%% <yates@ieee.org> % "Rockaria", *A New World Record*, ELO
http://home.earthlink.net/~yatescr

--
Randy Yates
Sony Ericsson Mobile Communications
Research Triangle Park, NC, USA
randy.yates@sonyericsson.com, 919-472-1124
Randy Yates
 

Re: does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Postby maTheMatic » Tue Dec 28, 2004 5:02 am

Hi, Randy

when T->inf, we got a finite ENERGY, but it doesn't mean the average
Power isn't zero.

E=Lim P*T, it is undetermined by 0*inf in mathematics.
T->inf

actually the power density at DC (or other single frequency point)
which you had noticed it has energy unit is the engergy of the ensemble
average of the time average signal.
apply FT to autocorrelation , and let f =0, we get
PSD(0) = lim T* (1/T * E(int(x(t)))^2, T->inf.



Randy Yates wrote:
Randy Yates <yates@ieee.org> writes:

"kiki" <lunaliu3@yahoo.com> writes:

Hi all,

I read through several books but did not get clarification on
whether
WGN(white Gaussian noise process) imply zero mean or not...

Hi Kiki,

Now you've got me wondering. On one hand, I've heard the term
"zero-mean
additive white Gaussian noise" many times, but on the other hand,
"white"
implies a flat PSD, which in term implies that there is some power
at DC.
So I can't answer your question.

Kiki I hope you're reading this new post,

I can now partially answer your question. In order to do this, first
realize that when someone speaks of a zero-mean, white Gaussian noise
process, they're talking about a random process with an underlying
distribution, i.e., for each point in time t, the random process x(t)
has a specific probability density function f(t, s). IT IS THIS
UNDERLYING PDF THAT IS ZERO-MEAN.

However, that still doesn't completely resolve the issue (at least in
my mind it doesn't). A random process is "ergodic" if its time-wise
statistics are the same as its ensemble-wise statistics. So we have a
dilemma when postulating a zero-mean, white, ergodic random noise
process because ensemble-wise the mean is zero while time-wise the
mean is non-zero (since there's non-zero energy at DC). I still don't
know how to resolve THIS problem!

--Randy



Another confusion I have is that the definition of WGN is it has
flat power
spectrum density, let's say S(f)=1, then Rx(t)=delta(t) is its
autocorrelation function, I don't see how people say the power of
this noise
process is E((x(t))^2)=sigma_x,

Rxx(t) is defined to be

Rxx(tau)= E[x(t)*x(t-tau)]

for a real random process x(t). Then, by definition,

E[x^2(t)] = E[x(t) * x(t-0)]
= Rxx(0)
= undefined (infinity)

when Rxx(t) = delta(t). Thus you're contradicting yourself
somewhat.

A truly white-noise process does have infinite power (hence the
Dirac
delta function in the autocorrelation), but most transistors I know
of burn out after a few gigawatts, so we usually speak of a
band-limited
white noise process, i.e., a process which has a PSD Sxx(w) = c,
|w| < a,
and in which case the power is finite and Rxx(0) = a*c/pi.
--
% Randy Yates % "She's sweet on Wagner-I think
she'd die for Beethoven.
%% Fuquay-Varina, NC % She love the way Puccini lays
down a tune, and
%%% 919-577-9882 % Verdi's always creepin' from her
room."
%%%% <yates@ieee.org> % "Rockaria", *A New World Record*,
ELO
http://home.earthlink.net/~yatescr

--
Randy Yates
Sony Ericsson Mobile Communications
Research Triangle Park, NC, USA
randy.yates@sonyericsson.com, 919-472-1124
maTheMatic
 

Re: does WGN(white Gaussian noise) imple zero mean?

Postby Country_Chiel » Wed Dec 29, 2004 7:59 am

"kiki" <lunaliu3@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:cqlbr7$a4m$1@news.Stanford.EDU...
Hi all,

I read through several books but did not get clarification on whether
WGN(white Gaussian noise process) imply zero mean or not...

Another confusion I have is that the definition of WGN is it has flat
power
spectrum density, let's say S(f)=1, then Rx(t)=delta(t) is its
autocorrelation function, I don't see how people say the power of this
noise
process is E((x(t))^2)=sigma_x, something like that... the power should be
infinite, right?

Any clarifications? Thanks a lot!



That's because I believe most of the time the PSD for white noise is quoted

incorrectly. It should be

sigma squared/(fs) and it is flat from fs/2 to -fs/2 where fs is the
sampling freq.The area under the PSD is the total average power or sigma
squared. (including negative frequencies). If you time-average the data
(noise) you should get a variance of sigma squared (assuming the mean to be
zero).Hence the time average (sum of squares/N) is the same as the
statistical average E[x^2].
As for autocorrelation, the impulse is there to denote that it is just a
spike.If you take the Fourier Transform of the autocorrleation function you
should get PSD (Wiener-Kinchen Theorem). So you can work it out for
yourself - however - please note the difference between PSD and the AREA
UNDER IT which is the total average power.

Country Chiel
Country_Chiel
 

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